We are accustomed to hearing the assertion that a bilaterally agreed clause contravening the statutory rule setting a time limit for commercial payments is void ab initio. But is this case when it is the supplier who has the bargaining power? And, in general, does such an assertion make sense?<\/p>\n","protected":false},"featured_media":0,"template":"","publicacion_categoria":[126],"class_list":["post-279750","publicacion","type-publicacion","status-publish","hentry","publicacion_categoria-analysis-en"],"acf":[],"yoast_head":"\n